Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
13.06.2025 15:25
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Mariners' vibes turn ugly after sweep: 'Nobody feels sorry for us' - The Seattle Times
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
Can you show pictures of your penis, big or small?
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?